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Joseph
and MaryMarried or Engaged?
Unraveling
the Mess of Modern Translations
(Reprinted from the
Christian Voyager Compass, Jan 2006)
The
first Christmas Eve - what a wondrous night it was!
It was a night in Bethlehem where shepherds tended
their flocks in the open fields under a deep and
starry canopy, where clans and families had already
scurried with their caravans to prepare to register
for the official census under Caesar Augustus, and
now, where every inn was brimming with occupants
and every conceivable lodging space was already
taken. Quite beyond the notice of the busy hubbub,
a simple man enters through the town gate with a
donkey carrying a young woman ready to give birth.
And though the couple searches franticly, inn after
inn, for a place to lodge, it is to no avail-there
is no room. At last they are allowed to shelter
in a meager stable
And we know the rest of
the story.
Now
somewhere in all the accounts of this special night,
read to us in our churches every Christmas Eve,
something has changedsomething very small
and inconspicuous, but something terribly important.
And like the couple entering Bethlehem that night,
it has gone virtuously unnoticed.
For
centuries, English speaking Christians recounted
the nativity of Christ from the Bible of the English
language, the King James Version (KJV). It begins,
"And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out
of the city of Nazareth, into Judaea, unto the city
of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he
was of the house and lineage of David:) To be taxed
with Mary his espoused wife, being great with child."
(Luke 2:4-5 KJV) It was, among many others, a beloved
text, one memorized by young and old alike. And
there was never any confusion as to what it meant,
only a reverent awe at the implications of it all.
But
things have changed in the last few decades. The
English Bible has been set on the proverbial shelf,
since its archaic language is becoming more difficult
for modern readers. And in its place have come a
host of heralded new versions, each touted to be
ever-truer to the "original," though,
in actuality, each is further away from objective
translation and verifiable source than the one previous
to it.
A New Interpretation
Not so very long ago, I chanced
to hear a Christmas Eve sermon at what was termed
a "seeker sensitive" service. The speaker
did his best not to alienate non-Christian listeners
with undo moral injunctions, and the modern Bible
he preached from worked perfectly to incorporate
this inclusiveness. From the New International Version
(NIV) he read the following:
So Joseph also went up from
the town of Nazareth in Galilee to Judea, to Bethlehem
the town of David, because he belonged to the house
and line of David. He went there to register with
Mary, who was pledged to be married to him and was
expecting a child. (Luke 2:4-5 NIV)
For the first time, I noticed
a most subtle change in the verse: it was no longer
Joseph's "espoused wife" who was with
him, but rather one just "pledged to be married"
to him. My, that was odd. Were we to believe that
Mary was only engaged to Joseph yet traveling alone
with him? Could it truly be said that the couple
was only engaged, not married, and yet living together
(albeit without sexual relations) until after Jesus
was born?! The speaker that night seemed to think
so!
He went on to contend that
in Matthew's account of these events family members
or townspeople had actually found out Mary's condition
ahead of time so that she became the topic of gossip
in Nazareth. He then explained that Joseph, though
not yet married, would have had to enact a divorce
in order to get out of the arrangement since in
those days engagement was virtually as binding as
marriage. Could all this be true? Have you heard
these things too, dear Reader? If so, keep following
this trail as we will soon come to some very interesting
discoveries!
To all the claims made
by the speaker that evening, we shall unapologetically
reply, nonsense! We will subsequently show why this
is so. But we should note here that, in all fairness,
the speaker may have simply been confused by the
wording in these new translations, namely the NIV.
After all, in the Luke 2:5 reading, the Greek text
underlying the NIV (and not only the NIV but all
the new versions) completely leaves out the word,
"wife" in regards to Mary's status! An
amazing omission, since the word is unquestionably
behind the Received Greek Text of the KJV. But not
so surprising, since these newer Greek texts are
merely "eclectic," chosen piece-meal by
modern Biblical scholars from various manuscripts
like so many bits of a mosaic. Thus they cannot
effectually be authorized from any traceable text
tradition. Dear me! What irresponsible action has
gone on behind the scenes and what a mess of affairs
these translations have made for us! It's time to
investigate this matter for ourselves.
The "Home As"
Problem
First, let's read the nativity
account in Matthew from the NIV and see how this
translation carefully alters the text to place Joseph
and Mary in a pre-married status:
This is how the birth of Jesus
Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to
be married to Joseph, but before they came together,
she was found to be with child through the Holy
Spirit. Because Joseph her husband was a righteous
man and did not want to expose her to public disgrace,
he had in mind to divorce her quietly. But after
he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared
to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of
David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your
wife, because what is conceived in her is from the
Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you
are to give him the name Jesus, because he will
save his people from their sins (Matthew 1:18-21
NIV)
A bit further on, in verse
24, we read, "when Joseph woke up, he did what
the Angel of the Lord had commanded him and took
Mary home as his wife. But he had no union with
her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him
the name Jesus." (NIV)
Leaving aside verses 18 and
19 for a moment, let's begin by examining verse
20. Here the angel is telling Joseph not to fear
taking Mary "home as" his wife. Verse
24 reiterates this, saying Joseph obeyed the angel
and took Mary "home as his wife." Yet
neither of the words, "home" or "as,"
are even in the Greek text which underlies the NIV.
Not at all! This is very disturbing because with
the purely fabricated word, "home," inserted,
the reader gets the impression that indeed Mary's
situation must have been found out prior to the
marriage, since, if she is not at Joseph's residence
then she must still be at home with her family.
Furthermore, the clever addition of the word, "as,"
to form the phrase, "as a wife," gives
the reader the strong indication that Mary at that
point was certainly not yet Joseph's spouse, although
the underlying Greek text for the NIV explicitly
states that she was indeed his wife! Going one further,
since Joseph is then seen contemplating having to
divorce Mary to end the "engagement,"
the reader is left concluding that such engagements
were indeed binding! And perhaps the speaker that
night had even reasoned that Joseph taking Mary
home "as his wife" actually meant that
she would simply appear as a wife to those outside
(though the idea goes beyond the normal boundaries
of interpretation). That is, it would seem that
they were married to all looking on, although they
would still only be engaged, though refraining from
sexual union. But again, we must emphatically state,
the underlying Greek text of this passage unambiguously
shows that Mary was already Joseph's lawful wife.
The Long Slumber Problem
Continuing our research, we see next that the NIV
states that "when Joseph woke up" he did
what the angel commanded him. With this wording,
the reader could easily assume that it was not until
the following morning when Joseph finally arose
and went to get Mary and bring her "home"
with him "as his wife." However, the phrase
"when Joseph woke up" is a rather ambiguous
rendering of the underlying Greek which has a much
more immediate sense to it. The KJV has it perfectly,
stating that, "then Joseph being raised from
sleep did as the Angel of the Lord had bidden him,
and took unto him his wife," (literally, "took
to his side" or "took into his embrace")
his wife." This accurate reading implies that
Joseph was awakened right away and took Mary (who
was already his wife and who was already abiding
with him) to be next to him bodily.
The Meaning of Betrothed
Now let's go back to the beginning
of our passage in verse 18. "This is how the
birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary
was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before
they came together, she was found to be with child
through the Holy Spirit. (NIV)
Let's stop here. Mary was "pledged
to be married," or as the KJV has it, "espoused"
to Joseph. That is, she was "given in marriage"
transactionally, legally spoken for and "betrothed,"
set apart as Joseph's wife at that time. All that
remained was for Joseph, once he was ready with
finances and housing arrangements, to come and escort
his bride to their new home, with all their friends
joining along in wedding procession to congratulate
the new couple. Though there might be some kind
of feasting, this would not have been any long or
elaborate affair for a poorer couple, but rather
may well have been simply a celebratory evening
of song and cheer. Nor was there any rabbi on the
scene to "bless" or "formalize"
the marriage, since marriage in those days was a
decidedly secular event.
Marriage was binding, not because it was connected
with any religious service, priest, or place of
worship-as is the case in our day-but because it
had been ordained by God from the beginning of creation
(see Genesis 39:9; Matthew 19:4-6). Once the legal
protocols were taken care of through the betrothal,
it was considered final: all that remained was the
consummation of the new relationship by the couples'
sexual cohabitation, the two becoming one flesh.
Remember that Isaac, when he married Rebekah, simply
took her into his tent and "she became his
wife." (Genesis 24:67) That is, she entered
into full wifehood when they had sexual relations,
but the transactional legalities had already been
secured when the marriage betrothal was authorized
by her father, Bethuel and her brother, Laban. (See
Genesis 24:49-54)
This is a far cry from how
Christians are married today. Though the laws of
the state regulate the secular transactions of the
marriage arrangement, yet in the Church, marriage
is not considered inaugurated nor acceptable to
God until a religious ceremony is performed by a
clergy member. There is a longstanding tradition
of this in Christianity, although there is no basis
of the practice from Scripture-either from the Old
or the New Testament. This separation of the betrothal
(that is, the pledging one's commitment to marry
another) from the actual marriage contract itself
has resulted in the more modern understanding of
engagement, which is socially viewed as the serious-but
breakable-courtship phase prior to marriage. We
see clearly that today's engagement is not the same
as the Biblical espousal/betrothal of marriage and
that to equate the two only brings confusion to
the student of Scripture.
The Nonexistent "But"
and Obscured Meaning of "Come Together"
The very next clause in our
verse 18 reads, "but before they came together
."
The word "but," like so many other words
in the NIV, is merely inserted; the underlying Greek
text here for the NIV does not have the word "but"
nor any word at all! To insert such a word here
when there is not even a hint of it in the Greek
is completely without linguistic integrity. Yet
this is done to give the impression that the marriage
did not yet take place due to Mary being found to
be pregnant. In other words, the NIV rendering indicates
that Mary was engaged to be married to Joseph, but
something happened to prevent that marriage from
occurring. That something was: Mary was found to
be pregnant. In actuality though, there is no such
disjuncture linguistically. As we have already shown,
the first part of this verse states that Mary was
already legally wedded to Joseph; there did not
have to be some further "marriage ceremony"
to authenticate their relationship. And since in
reality there is no "but" in front of
following phrase, it reads exactly as the KJV renders
it: "before they came together she was found
with child of the Holy Ghost." The plain reading
of the passage then is that Mary was already lawfully
espoused/wedded to Joseph and they were about to
consummate their marriage by sexual intercourse-which
is here rendered as "before they came together"-when
Mary is discovered to be pregnant. This "coming
together" is not a reference to any marriage
ceremony or even celebration (as the NIV rendering
intimates) but rather to sexual relations. We can
see this clearly in 1 Corinthians 7:5 where Paul
is using this exact Greek word when exhorting married
couples not to refrain from sexual relations for
long: "Defraud ye not one the other, except
it be with consent for a time, that ye may give
yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together
again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency."
(KJV) In the man/woman context, this term is always
used to denote the sexual union. Thus, the straightforward
translation of verse 18 simply indicates that Joseph
discovers Mary's pregnancy (presumably in the privacy
of their own room) on the very night they were to
consummate their marriage by conjugal love.
The Unwarranted Birth
Scandal Claims
But the reader may ask, would
not Mary's pregnancy have begun to show by then?
Would not people close to her have been making remarks?
First of all let us consider that there were people
already in her family that knew Mary's situation
from the beginning. Luke 1:39-45 recounts how Mary's
cousin Elizabeth discerned by the Holy Spirit that
Mary was already carrying the Messiah! It is probable
that Elizabeth's husband, Zechariah was also made
aware of it. And could it be that the mother of
Mary knew as well? Or perhaps Mary was without a
mother at that time, and even without sisters, so
that her times of bathing would have been completely
private. Mary, it seems, never announced it to anyone,
since the Scripture says that she "treasured
up all these things in her heart" (Luke 2:19);
no doubt a very good idea to keep herself hidden
and let God work out the PR-even with regards to
Joseph!
Realistically, Mary would not
have begun to show signs of pregnancy outwardly
for at least three to four months from the time
Jesus was conceived. Interestingly, it could well
have been just over three months that Mary was carrying
Jesus before she and Joseph were to "come together"
since Luke 1:26-56 details the angel's enunciation
to Mary and Mary's subsequent visit to Elizabeth
for that precise amount of time. So it is not hard
to imagine that the generously modest clothing of
that era could easily have concealed an early pregnancy
from those not "in the know"-including
even Joseph, at least until he and Mary were alone
in the marriage chamber.
We should note as well, that
had there been any hints publicly of an indiscretion
on Mary's part in such a small community, Jesus'
ministry would have been constantly met with such
accusations by those who wanted to destroy Him.
Remember, Joseph and Mary were married in Nazareth
(Luke 2:4) and later returned to that very town
when Jesus was still a small child (Matthew 2:22-23),
so people most certainly knew who they were. When
we search the Gospels for any trace of accusations
against Jesus' birth, we find none whatsoever. Instead,
we find great admiration of Jesus among the townsfolk.
"And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature,
and in favor with God and man." (Luke 2:52)
Illegitimate births in those days were not something
easily tolerated among the devout, and certainly
never accepted. Jesus would have been the laughing
stock of his fellow Jews during His miraculous ministry
if there had been any question of His mother's marital
fidelity.
That there was absolutely no
indication of such a question can be seen in Matthew
13:55-56, where, after hearing Him teach, those
in Jesus' hometown area incredulously ask, "Is
not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother
called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses,
and Simon, and Judas? and his sisters, are they
not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these
things?" Nor in all the accounts of Jesus'
ministry, crucifixion, and resurrection is there
any trace of such claims leveled against His conception
or birth, though it is obvious that the religious
rulers who condemned Him to death would have eagerly
latched on to such "information" in their
desperate attempt to discredit Him. In fact, it
is only after Christ rose from the dead and inaugurated
His Church do we begin to see in history this insidious
slander crop up from among those who hated Him.
By then, of course, the whole story of His miraculous
birth would have come to the fore, verified by Mary
herself and others close to the events, as believers
would need to know just who this wonderful Savior
actually was!
Joseph's Resolve to Divorce
As we continue down our Matthew
passage, verse 19 reveals that, upon surveying the
situation, Joseph was convinced that Mary must have
been unfaithful to him. "Because Joseph her
husband was a righteous man
" (NIV); that
is, being a devout Jew, Joseph wanted out of what
he deemed to be an ungodly marriage union, yet he
loved Mary and did not want her to come to harm.
Being legally wed, he only had two options by which
to end their marriage. First, he could expose her
supposed infidelity publicly according to Deuteronomy
22:20-21 and have her stoned to death for being
promiscuous (thus no need to divorce her). Or second,
he could claim he had found some personal "indecency"
in her and divorce her in a very low-key, behind-the
scenes manner which was the fashion of some rabbis
of the day. (Deuteronomy 24:1-2). He chose option
number two. Following the closer rendering of the
KJV we read,
Then Joseph her husband, being
a just man, and not willing to make her a public
example, was minded to put her away privily. (KJV,
vs. 19)
Joseph Embraces Mary his
Wife
Verses
20-22 tell us that while Joseph was contemplating
what to do, the angel of the Lord appeared to him
in a dream telling him not to be afraid to take
to himself (to his side) Mary his wife, since it
was God's own child that she carried. Again, following
the KJV rendering, we read in verses 24 and 25,
"Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as
the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto
him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought
forth her firstborn son: and he called his name
JESUS. In other words, Joseph, now understanding
the situation accurately, took Mary to his side
to sleep together with him. Because of God's intervention,
Joseph had a complete turnaround! He now could accept
Mary as his wife without reservation and although
they no doubt embraced, Joseph decided he would
not have sexual intercourse with her until after
she bore God's Son.
How discretely the Scripture
deals with what happened. It does not go into unnecessary
personal detail but gives just enough information
to explain the gist of the situation. God had protected
Mary and His holy plan from any outside prying or
harassment, while informing only those few whom
He had chosen to know ahead of time. He is a master
of perfect timing! And Mary truly exemplifies a
woman of "faith" who trusted in God to
accomplish His most amazing purposes through what
seemed quite precarious circumstances! How ever
would she explain this to Joseph? Yet she knew God
would intervene. And how faithfully God did intervene
while Mary quietly waited for His promises to come
to fruition.
The Happy Conclusion
Thus when we find Mary and
Joseph traveling to Bethlehem five or six months
later in Luke's account (Luke 2:4-5), we now understand
that the English Bible was right all along: Mary
is here referred to as the "espoused wife"
of Joseph rather than as one "pledged to be
married" to him, as the NIV states. The Greek
text which underlies the KJV in the passage includes
both the words, "espoused" and "wife,"
conveying that Mary was Joseph's "legally wedded"
but "not yet known" wife. They were indeed
married, but they had not yet consummated their
marriage through physical union. And Matthew's wonderful
account has shown us why not: they decided to postpone
the intimacy of their marriage out of reverence
for God until His Holy Son was delivered into the
world! What an amazing couple.
So, dear reader, rest assured, Joseph and Mary were
most certainly married when Joseph discovered that
Mary was pregnant and later when they traveled together
to register in Bethlehem. And no, it is not accurate
to state (as many commentaries do) that engagement
in those days was as binding as marriage, because
engagement as we know it (as a pre-marriage courtship)
did not even exist. Rather the espousal was the
marriage, at least from a legal standpoint, enabling
the couple to then "come together" in
physical union once all the material preparations
were ready. And that time could arrive whenever
the bridegroom chose! And no again, Mary was not
exposed to contempt or slanderous accusations regarding
her pregnancy with Jesus as we have clearly shown
from Scripture.
Thankfully, a close look at
the Greek text and the faithful rendering of the
text in the English Bible have put all these misunderstandings
to naught. And so we have been brought full circle,
back again to that simple purity of the first nativity
eve wherein we read:
And Joseph also went up from
Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judaea,
unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem;
(because he was of the house and lineage of David:)
To be taxed with Mary his espoused wife, being great
with child. (KJV Luke 2:4-5)
*Note: So filled with inaccuracies is
the NIV that it would take years of careful study
to detect the bulk of them. The errors here exposed
are some of the least significant in comparison
to all the known errors of the NIV. If you use a
Bible for study it is best to use the KJV as it
is invariably closest to the Greek text, or at the
very least use the NKJV or even the NASB. You will
be glad you did in the end.
*Copyright
© 2006 by Diana Rosdail. All rights reserved.
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